Hey Everyone,

Given a lot of the fiasco(s) regarding different "Short Interest Percentage Calculations", and how some reporting websites have noted that certain "glitches" have resulted in the display of incorrect calculations, I figured I would share some of my thoughts.

As per TD Ameritrade's official Twitter (in reference to $AMC):

• "We apologize for the confusion! Given the numbers from our "fundamentals" page, 96.7MM "Short Interest" / 514M "shares outstanding" = 18.83% of float. Our technical support is working with our vendors to verify this information. We thank you for your patience! ^JD"

At first glance, I thought nothing of this considering how this tweet is uniform to everything that is known about how short interest is reported and calculated. However, my favorite document "RegSHO Final Amendments" states a few interesting things about how short positions can be opened...

As per the SEC's RegSHO Final Amendments (see pg. 50):

"...we recognize the ability to obtain a short position through the use of derivative products such as options, futures, contracts for differences, warrants, CDS or other swaps (so-called "synthetic short sales") or other instruments (such as inverse leveraged exchange-traded funds)..."

Purely me thinking aloud, but given the fact that, as defined by TD, "short interest" is merely a calculation of "shares shorted" / "shares outstanding", how does this factor in short positions that are opened/obtained via other methods that the SEC itself has said are available.

I have always been curious what any given "short interest" would be if the calculation accounted for "shares" shorted, in addition to other methods available given the amount of money in "derivative markets" vs. "traditional equity markets".

I'd be curious what anyone with more knowledge or information has to say, and please feel free to share any thoughts/opinions on the matter!